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Have you got any context for that claim?

(Context for the question - I barely drink spirits, but I used to enjoy them quite a lot at a time when I drank more in general, and I'd be interested to read about it, whether this is common etc)



Here's a summary with references:

https://www.oecd-ilibrary.org/sites/f98f97b1-en/index.html?i...

There's little reason to think expensive, exclusive spirits are exempt from this pattern.


It looks like the results are for all alcohol, rather than specifically spirits.

I was kinda/sorta expecting something specific to stronger alcohol being disproportionately consumed by those who also consumed other alcohol. Like if 50% of all booze is consumed by 10% of the population who are heavy drinkers, does that skew to 90% of spirits?

Interesting read anyway.




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