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> a borrowing from Sanskrit is highly unlikely

In which sense? Most of the content of post-Latin languages seems to be post-Sanskrit. Not necessarily as a direct derivation, but as a full appearance: you normally can see the Sanskrit dropped into Greek dropped into Latin (whatever the path, descendants or siblings).



The idea that European languages or that a sizable portion of their vocabulary descended from Sanskrit is quite outdated. It was understandable that some people in 18th century could hold such views because they didn’t know better, in 19th century it wasn’t held by most if not all scholars, in 20th century it was disproved beyond reasonable doubt, in 21st century it can only be regarded as pseudoscience.


Are you sure you are not referring to a theory of direct derivation - which would be quite an irrelevant matter?

Because evidence is that the Sanskrit terminology is massively present in this modern language and defines it; hence, awareness of Sanskrit is fundamental for awareness of the current language - which is the important thing. You could say that if they were unrelated, it would be the most extraordinary coincidence, and if their relation is not of «descende[nce]» that has much more relevance for historians than for language users, kind of mandated to know said language in depth.

In fact,

> pseudoscience

with all that scindere, do not forget the point which is that of understanding phenomena to better know them, activity more of needles than of scissors (don't overcut, the purpose is different).


>Are you sure you are not referring to a theory of direct derivation - which would be quite an irrelevant matter?

I am not sure what else you may mean by "comes from".

>Because evidence is that the Sanskrit terminology is massively present in this modern language and defines it;

There is no such evidence in modern linguistics.

>hence, awareness of Sanskrit is fundamental for awareness of the current language - which is the important thing. You could say that if they were unrelated, it would be the most extraordinary coincidence, and if their relation is not of «descende[nce]» that has much more relevance for historians than for language users, kind of mandated to know said language in depth.

They are related. Latin, Sanskrit, Russian, English, Greek, German, Persian, Bengali, etc are all descended from Proto-Indo-European. Knowing one is not any better than knowing any other in terms of awareness of meanings in other Indo-European languages.


> I am not sure what else you may mean by "comes from"

Thing is, we do not have Proto-Indo-European. So, we have to somehow reconstruct it in the investigation of terms. Sanskrit just seems to be a close enough derivation of PIE to shed invaluable light over the kernel meaning of the elements of these languages.

> There is no such evidence in modern linguistics

'Evidence': vid, veda, vitti, vidura, vidvas, vidyā... 'Modern': mā, mātrā, medhā... 'Linguistics': lal, lalanā... 'There': tar-hi... 'No': an...

> They are related. Latin, Sanskrit, Russian, English, Greek, German, Persian, Bengali, etc are all descended from Proto-Indo-European. Knowing one is not any better

Of course they are related. The comparative consideration of Latin, Greek and Sanskrit reveals a network of meanings propagating in all those derivations. Without such consideration, awareness is bound to remain poor - you are losing pieces of the puzzle. Persian and Bengali, I do not know (almost at all); others, I have explored but have not found the same productive richness in light shedding over the matter. English: well it is to understand English (and French, Spanish etc.) that you may want to undertake the endavour, and the awareness comes from considering 'knowledge' out of jñāna, gnō̃́sis and gnosco (but especially jñāti, diánoia, nobilis) - it is not a matter of knowing «one». For those who have familiarity with Latin and Greek, Sanskrit appears to be a very important piece, to reconstruct the network of meanings and better define their common core meaning.


>Sanskrit just seems to be a close enough derivation of PIE to shed invaluable light over the kernel meaning of the elements of these languages.

Sanskrit is one of the languages that was used by comparativists to reconstructed PIE. Trying to use Sanskrit "to shed invaluable light over the kernel meaning of the elements of these languages" is no better than using those languages to shed light over Sanskrit.

>'Evidence': vid, veda, vitti, vidura, vidvas, vidyā... 'Modern': mā, mātrā, medhā... 'Linguistics': lal, lalanā... 'There': tar-hi... 'No': an...

That's not evidence of anything.




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