It seems pretty conclusive that there are differences between the distribution of men and the distribution of women. It seems incredibly inconclusive where these differences come from. Especially when human behaviors are changing so much decade to decade. I'm suspicious of anyone who takes the uncertainty in the causal question and decides that it's definitely one cause or the other.
Kinda like certain arguments about climate change or early covid (yeah let's make this even more politically charged), in a state of so much uncertainty, it's useful to look at the potential harms of being wrong one way or the other. The potential harms are asymmetric, so I think it's wise to default to treating people the same in terms of potential. Empirically, it seems like most of history has defaulted the opposite direction ("science says we're different and X is natural") causing a lot of harm to various groups.
Kinda like certain arguments about climate change or early covid (yeah let's make this even more politically charged), in a state of so much uncertainty, it's useful to look at the potential harms of being wrong one way or the other. The potential harms are asymmetric, so I think it's wise to default to treating people the same in terms of potential. Empirically, it seems like most of history has defaulted the opposite direction ("science says we're different and X is natural") causing a lot of harm to various groups.