In some formal scheme yes. In the actual situation no, it could not easily. Or we can reduce the question to a squabble of semantics: Alright, the dog's actions were not conscious and actively planned, but then neither are ours. I fail to see the fundamental difference, and have never really heard a coherent case made that there is one.
You are of course right that argument from own lack of imagination is no proof of anything.
I should think it fairly clear, unless you propose some definite, qualitative difference between the dog and the rest of us.
It's not clear that such a difference exists, is it?
